Chalmidya- is cheating the only explanation?

This is my first time on this sub, sorry if this doesn’t belong.

To keep things brief, I’ve been with my BF for 3 years. Went to the gyno in year 1 and year 2 for birth control and tested negative for chlamidya. This year (year 3) I tested positive. BF also tested positive and we got treated. He is the only partner I’ve ever had sex with, but he’s had sex with girls before me and he doesn’t like using condoms.

Went to the gyno for a follow up test recently and asked her all my questions, she basically said the only answer as to how this happened is that he cheated. He says he didn’t, and I want to believe him, but the facts are there.

So, is cheating really the only explanation? Doctor said if he’s had it from a previous relationship, he for sure would have shown symptoms after all these years. The doctor suggested it was probably recent that it was introduced into our relationship since neither of us had symptoms.

Is it possible for him to have had it for years, yet I still test negative two years in a row while neither of us have symptoms? Or should I just listen to the facts and lose this relationship? I’m scared that he’s telling the truth and I’m about to mess everything up.

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